Multiple
Choice Questions (MCQs) and answers on the constitution of India especially
compiled for NMMS/PSTSE and othere students preparing for competitive examinations
!
1. “Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is
forbidden” is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution?
A.
Article 14
B.
Article 15
C.
Article 16
D.
Article 17
Ans. D
2. Article 18 of the Indian Constitution gives the provision of
‘Abolition’ of Titles’. Which of the following are the provisions under
Abolition of Titles?
A.
No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by
the state
B. No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign state
C. No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of
profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of the President
any title from any foreign state
D.
All of them
Ans. D
3. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution
provides ‘Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.’ to
Indian citizens?
A.
Article 18 (2)
B.
Article 18 (1)
C.
Article 19
D.
Article 20
Ans. C
4. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution
are conferred on:
A.
Indian citizens
B.
All persons living within Indian Territory
C.
Foreigners also
D.
All of them
Ans. A
5. Which of the following statements regarding nature of the
rights that are guaranteed by Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is/are
found to be correct?
I.
Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is confined to what are known as civil
rights as distinguished from political rights such as the right to vote or to
hold any political office, or the privileges of a chamber of the legislation.
II. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution refers to what are known as natural
or common law rights as distinguished from rights which are created by a
statute and must be exercised subject to conditions imposed by it.
III.
Article 19 of the Indian Constitution does not include the right to life.
A.
I and II
B.
II and III
C.
I and III
D.
I, II and III
Ans. D
6. In determining the substantive reasonableness, the Court has to
take into consideration various factors. Which of the following points have to
be satisfied in order to adjudge the restriction to be ‘reasonable’?
A.
The restriction must have a rational connection with the object sought to be
achieved by the law
B. The restriction imposed must not be in excess of the mischief sought to be
prevented or the object sought to be achieved by the law
C.
Both (A) and (B)
D.
Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. C
7. Which of the following principles and guidelines should be kept
in mind for considering the constitutionality of a statutory provision upon a
challenge on the alleged vice of unreasonableness of the restriction imposed
by it?
A.
The restriction sought to be imposed on the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
Article 19 of the Indian Constitution must not be arbitrary or of an excessive
nature so as to go beyond the requirement of felt need of the society and
object sought to be achieved
B. There must be a direct and proximate nexus or a reasonable connection
between the restriction imposed and the object sought to be achieved
C.
No abstract or fixed principle can be laid down which may have universal
application in all cases
D.
All of them
Ans. D
8. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of the
Press is/are found to be correct?
I.
This freedom cannot be claimed by a newspaper or other publication run by a
non-citizen.
II.
The freedom of Press, under our Constitution, is not higher than the freedom of
an ordinary citizen is subject to the same limitations as are imposed by
Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution and to those limitations only.
A.
Both are correct
B.
Both are incorrect
C.
Only I
D.
Only II
Ans. A
9. Which of the following Amendment Acts empowers the Court to
adjudge the reasonableness of a restriction imposed even on the right
guaranteed by Article 19(1) A of the Indian Constitution?
A.
First Amendment Act
B.
Second Amendment Act
C.
Third Amendment Act
D.
Fourth Amendment Act
Ans. A
10. Clause (1) B. of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution
guarantees the freedom of citizens to meet with each other in any number
provided the assembly is
A.
Peaceable
B.
Unarmed
C.
Large
D.
Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
11. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of
Association is/are found to be correct?
I.
The right guaranteed by 19 (1) C is an ordinary right which is enjoyed by all
citizens to form associations.
II. It has no reference to a right which is conferred by a particular statute
to act as a member of a body which is the creation of the statute itself.
A.
I and II
B.
Only I
C.
Only II
D.
Neither I nor II
Ans. A
12. Which of the following restrictions on Freedom of Association
is/are considered to be unreasonable?
A.
Government cannot make it obligatory for every employee to become a member of
an association sponsored by the Government
B.
A restriction on this freedom which may remain in force for an indefinite
period at the pleasure of the executive authorities is an unreasonable
restriction
C.
Where those who have a right to form an association will be kept away and the
society shall be run by a group of persons nominated by the Government, there
is a virtual deprivation of the right to association
D.
All of them
Ans. D
13. By which of the following clauses, the right to Freedom of
movement is granted to Indian citizens?
A.
Article 19(1) C
B.
Article 19(1) B
C.
Article 19(1) A
D.
Article 19(1) D
Ans. D
14. Surveillance is needed for the legitimate purpose of prevention
of crime and its process must necessarily be confidential. In which of the
following situations the court may interfere in the police surveillance?
I.
Where it is sought to be used for a purpose other than the detection of crime.
II. Where the surveillance is as excessive as to squeeze out the fundamental
freedoms of all citizens or to offend the dignity of the individual.
A.
Only I
B.
Only II
C.
I and II
D.
Neither I nor II
Ans. C
15. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of
Residence is/are found to be correct?
I.
Since the rights under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution are available only
to a citizen, a person cannot complain of the infringement of his right under
the sub clause (1) (e) if his citizenship has been terminated by a law made by
Parliament, under Article 11.
II.
It is not available to a foreigner.
A.
Neither I nor II
B.
I and II
C.
Only I
D.
Only II
Ans. B
16. Which of the following expression is/are employed under
Article 19(1) (g) of the Indian Constitution?
A.
Profession
B.
Occupation
C.
Trade and Business
D.
All of them
Ans. D
17. Which of the following clauses is/are covered under Article 20
of the Indian Constitution?
I.
No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in
force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence.
II. No person shall be prosecuted and punished (of the same offence more than once.
III.
No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against
himself.
A.
Only I
B.
II and III
C.
I and III
D.
I, II and III
Ans. D
18. Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution is about “accused’s
immunity from being compelled to be a witness against himself”. This clause
gives protection:
A.
To a person accused of an offence
B.
Against compulsion to be a witness
C.
Against himself
D.
All of them
Ans. D
19. Which of the following is/are an essential ingredient of the
clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution?
A.
Compulsion
B.
Confession
C.
Prohibition
D.
Both (A) and (B)
Ans. A
20. Which of the following statements regarding protection of
personal liberty is/are found to be correct?
I.
The object of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is to prevent encroachment
upon personal liberty by the Executive save in accordance with law and in
conformity with the provisions thereof.
II.
Before a person is deprived of his life or personal liberty the procedure
established by law must be strictly followed and must not be departed from to
the disadvantage of the person affected.
A.
I and II
B.
Only I
C.
Only II
D.
None of above
Ans. A
21. The protection of the Article 21 extends to which of the
following?
A.
Citizens
B.
All persons
C.
Foreigners
D.
Persons under imprisonment
Ans. B
22. Which of the following can be included in Right to life under
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
I.
Right of a person not to be subjected to bonded labour or to unfair conditions
of labour.
II.
Right of a bonded labourer to rehabilitation after release.
III.
Right to a decent environment and a reasonable accommodation.
A.
I, II and III
B.
I and II
C.
II and III
D.
I and III
Ans. A
23. In which of the cases, domiciliary visit by the Police without
the authority of a law, was held to be violative of Article 21 of the Indian
Constitution assuming that a right of privacy was a fundamental right derived
from the freedom of movement guaranteed by Article 19 (1) D of the Indian
Constitutional as well as personal liberty guaranteed by Article 21?
A.
Dr. Sudesh Jale v. State of Haryana
B.
Kharak Singh v. State of U.P
C.
Govind v. State of M.P
D.
Neera Mathur v. L.I.C
Ans. B
24. Which of the following statements regarding reasonableness of
a penal law is/are found to be correct?
I.
A procedure which was ‘arbitrary, oppressive or fanciful’ was no ‘procedure’ at
all.
II.
A procedure which was unreasonable could not be said to be in conformity with
Article 14, because the concept of reasonableness permeated that Article in
toto.
A.
I and II
B.
Only I
C.
Only II
D.
None of them
Ans. A
25. ‘Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases’ is
mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A.
Article 21
B.
Article 21A
C.
Article 22
D.
Article 22A
Ans. C
26. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I.
The person arrested has a right to consult a legal advisor of his own choice,
ever since the moment of his arrest and also to have effective interview with
the lawyer out of the hearing of the police, though it may be within their
presence.
II.
The right extends to any person who is arrested, whether under the general law
or under a special statute.
A.
Only I
B.
Only II
C.
I and II
D.
None of them
Ans. C
27. Which of the following is mentioned in clause (2) of Article
22 of the Indian Constitution?
A.
The right to consult legal practitioner
B.
Right to be defended by a legal practitioner
C.
Right to be produced before the nearest magistrate
D.
Both (A) and (B)
Ans. C
28. The right to make a representation against the order of detention
is the most cherished and valuable right conferred upon a detenu under
Article_______________ of the Indian Constitution and if there has been any
infraction of such right the detenu is entitled to be released.
A.
22(2)
B.
22(3)
C.
22(4)
D.
22(5)
Ans. D
29. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour comes
under which of the following fundamental rights?
A.
Right to freedom
B.
Right against exploitation
C.
Right to education and culture
D.
Right to constitutional remedies
Ans. B
30. ‘Labour or service exacted by Government or a person in power
without giving remuneration for it’ is termed as:
A.
Forced labour
B.
Beggar
C.
Unemployed
D.
None of them
Ans. B
31. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution
states. ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in
any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment?
A.
Article 22
B.
Article 22(2)
C.
Article 23
D.
Article 24
Ans. D
32. Right to Freedom of Religion’ is contained in which of the
following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A.
Article 25-28
B.
Article 29-30
C.
Article 32
D.
Article 19-22
Ans. A
33. Nothing in Article 25 of the Indian Constitution shall affect
the operation of any existing law or prevent the state from making any law:-
I.
Regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular
activity which may be associated with religious practice.
II.
Providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious
institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Which of the above statements is/are found to correct?
A.
Both are incorrect
B.
Both are correct
C.
Only I
D.
Only II
Ans. B
34. The meetings of the State Legislative Council are presided by
the ______
A.
Deputy Speaker
B.
Speaker
C.
Chairman
D.
Governor
Ans. C
35. Under Article 26 of the Indian Constitution, subject to public
order, morality and health every religious denomination or any section thereof
shall have the right:
A.
To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose
B.
To manage its own affairs in matters of religion
C.
To own and acquire movable and immovable property
D.
All of them
Ans. D
36. Which of the following statements regarding Right of religious
denomination under is/are found to be correct?
I.
This Article does not take away the right of the State to acquire property
belonging to a religious denomination.
II.
This Article does not create rights in any denomination or a section which it
never had.
III.
Article 25(1) states that all persons are entitled to freedom of religion.
A.
I and II
B.
II and III
C.
I, II and III
D.
I and III
Ans. C
37. Which of the following statements regarding clause C of
Article 26 of the Indian Constitution i.e. Right to own property is/are found
to be correct?
I.
Under this clause every religious denomination has the right to own and acquire
property belonging to a religious body but it does prevent such property from
being acquired by authority of law or to be assessed to land revenue.
II.
The right guaranteed by Article 26 C. cannot be claimed after the ownership of
a religious denomination is otherwise validly terminated.
A.
I and II
B.
Only I
C.
Only II
D.
Neither I nor II
Ans. A
38. ‘Freedom as to attendance at religions instruction or religious
worship in certain educational institutions is the essence of which of the
following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A.
Article 27
B.
Article 27(1)
C.
Article 28
D.
Article 26
Ans. C
39. Articles 29-30 of the Indian Constitution confers which of the
following distinct rights?
A.
Right of any section of citizens to conserve its own language, script or
culture
B.
Right to all religious or linguistic minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice
C.
Right of an educational institution not to be discriminated against in the
matter of state aid on the ground that it is under management of a minority
D.
All of them
Ans. D
40. Which of the following conditions for the applications of
clause (1) of Article 30 of the
Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I.
In order to claim the benefit of Article 30 (1), the community must show (i)
that it is a religious or linguistic minority and (ii) that the institution was
establish by it.
II.
If an institution has been brought into being by a minority community it matters
not if the funds have been supplied by a single individual or by the community
at large, or whether members outside that community are also taking advantage
of the institution.
A.
Only I
B.
Only II
C.
Both I and II
D.
None of them
Ans. C
41. The right to administrator may be said to consist of which of
the following rights?
I.
To choose its managing or governing body.
II.
Not to be compelled to refuse admission to students.
III.
To use its properties and assets for the benefit of the institution.
A.
I and II
B.
I and III
C.
I and III
D.
I, II and III
Ans. D
42. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution
the right to compulsory acquisition of property was mentioned before its
deletion?
A.
Article 30(1)
B.
Article 31
C.
Article 32
D.
Article 30(2)
Ans. B
43. In which of the following states of India is Article 31 of the
Indian Constitution applicable even after its deletion by the 44th Amendment Act?
A.
Jammu and Kashmir
B.
Himachal Pradesh
C.
Sikkim
D.
Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. A
44. Sub-clause (1) A of Article 31A of the Indian Constitution
applies in which of the following contingencies?
A.
Acquisition of an estate
B.
Extinguishment of rights in an estate
C.
Modification of rights in an estate
D.
All of them
Ans. D
45. Which of the following conditions is/are required for the
application of sub-clause B of Article 31A of the Indian Constitution?
I.
The taking over must be for a limited and not be an indefinite period of time
or amount to acquisition
II.
It must be either in the public interest or in order to secure the proper
management of the property, which must be objectively established.
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
46. Which of the following
statements regarding the object of Article 3 IB of the Indian Constitution
is/are found to be correct?
I. Article 3IB has been
inserted, by way of abundant caution, to save the particular Acts included in
the 9th schedule of the constitution, notwithstanding any decision
of a court or tribunal that any of those Acts is void for contravention of any
fundamental right.
II. Article 3 IB is not
illustrative of the rule contained in Article 31 A, but stands independent of
it, and validates certain Acts specified in the Ninth schedule, though the
compensation provided was not real or adequate.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Both I and II
Ans. D
47. Which of the following
rights is considered as the ‘soul of fundamental rights’?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to constitutional
remedies
D. Right against exploitation
Ans. C
48. The Supreme Court shall
have power to issue directions or orders or writs according to Right to
Constitutional Remedies. Which of the following writs can be issued by the
Supreme Court for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Quo Warranto
D. All of them
Ans. D
49. In which of the following
situation the Supreme Court will not interfere under Article 32 of the Indian
Constitution?
A. No question other than
relating to a fundamental right will be determined in a proceeding under
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
B. If the validity of other
provisions of the statute is challenged on the grounds other than the
contravention of fundamental rights, the court would not entertain that
challenge in a proceeding under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
C. The court will not interfere
with the finding of fact where it was based on just and reasonable satisfaction
and was not perverse
D. All of them
Ans. D
50. Which of the following
statements regarding ‘What the Supreme Court cannot do under Article 32’ of the
Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. The Supreme Court will not
give a declaration which will not serve any useful purpose to the petitioner.
II. The Supreme Court will not
issue damages which are available only in a suit.
III. In the absence of adequate
materials, the Court would not enter into a political arena which should be
properly dealt with by the Government.
A. All are incorrect
B. All are correct
C. I and III
D. II and III
Ans. B
51. Which of the following sought to change the character of
Indian Government from unitary to federal:
A. Government of India Act,
1919
B. Government of India Act,
1935
C. Indian Council Act, 1909
D. Indian Independence Act,
1947.
Ans. B
52. The main recommendations of the Cabinet Commission include:
A. formation of Federal Union
consisting of British Indian provinces and Indian States
B. a Constituent Assembly to
frame a Constitution for India
C. an interim government
consisting of representatives of various political parties
D. all of the above.
Ans. D
53. Which one of the following Acts provided for setting up of a
Board of Control in Britain through which the British Government could fully
control the British East India Company’s civil, military and revenue affairs in
India:
A. Regulating Act of 1773
B. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
C. Charter Act of 1833
D. Government of India Act,
1858.
Ans. B
54. The plan of Stafford crips envisaged that after the Second
World War:
A. India should be granted
complete independence
B. India should be partitioned
into two before granting independence
C. India should be made a
republic with the condition that she will join the commonwealth
D. India should be given
dominion status.
Ans. D
55. The Act in which for the first time statutory rules were
framed to separate provincial subjects from the central subjects was the:
A. Government of India Act,
1935
B. Government of India Act,
1919
C. Indian Council Act, 1909
D. Indian Council Act, 1892.
Ans. C
56. Under which one of the following Acts was the Communal
Electorate System introduced by the British in India for the first time:
A. Government of India Act,
1909
B. Government of India Act,
1919
C. Indian Councils Act, 1861
D. Indian Council Act, 1892.
Ans. A
57. In the Federation
established by the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to:
A. Federal Legislature
B. Provincial Legislature
C. Governor General
D. Provincial Governors.
Ans. C
58. Which of the following are
the principal features of Government of India Act, 1919:
1. Introduction of dyarchy in
the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate
communal electorate for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative
authority by the Centre to the Provinces
4. Expansion and reconstitution
of Central and Provincial Legislatures
Codes –
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4.
Ans. D
59. First attempt at
introducing a representative and popular element in the Governance of India was
made through:
A. Indian Council Act, 1861
B. Indian Council Act, 1892
C. Indian Council Act, 1909
D. Government of India Act,
1919.
Ans. C
60. Which of the following
proved to be the shortest lived of all the British constitutional experiments
in India:
A. Government of India Act,
1919
B. Indian Councils Act, 1909
C. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
D. Government of India Act,
1935.
Ans. B
61. Which one of the following
Acts formally introduced the principles of elections for the first time:
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act,
1919
C. Government of India Act,
1935
D. Indian Independence Act,
1947.
Ans. A
62. Which of the following Acts
gave representation to Indians for the first time in the legislature:
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
B. Indian Councils Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act,
1935
D. None of the above.
Ans. C
63. The Crown took the
Government of India into its own hands by:
A. Charter Act, 1833
B. Government of India Act,
1858
C.
Indian Council Act, 1861
D.
Government of India Act, 1935.
Ans. B
64. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that ‘Preamble
is the basic feature of the Constitution’:
A.
In re: Golaknath case
B.
In re: Maneka Gandhi
C.
In re: Swam Singh
D.
In re: Keshwananda Bharti.
Ans. D
65. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not
the Part of the Constitution:
A.
A.K. Gopalan case
B.
Berubari case
C.
Minerva Mills case
D.
A.K. Antony case.
Ans. B
66. Preambleless statute is a rare occurrence. But there are some
statutes which do not have a Preamble. Which of the following statutes has no
Preamble:
A.
Government of India Act, 1935
B.
Government of India Act, 1919
C.
The British North America Act
D.
Constitution of Switzerland.
Ans. A
67. Sovereignty under Constitution belongs to:
A.
the President
B.
the Parliament
C.
the People
D.
the Executant, Judiciary and Legislature.
Ans. C
68. The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent
Assembly on:
A.
25 August, 1949
B.
26 November, 1949
C.
26 January, 1950
D.
15 August, 1947.
Ans. B
69. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that:
A.
it shall stand part of the Constitution
B.
it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution
C.
it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution
D.
it has a separate entity in the Constitution.
Ans. A
70. In the Preamble of the Constitution equality of status and
opportunity refers to:
A.
public services and public matters only
B.
social, political and economic affairs only
C.
social and economic affairs only
D.
both (a) and (b).
Ans. D
71. Expression ‘socialist’ in the Preamble has been added by
taking the views of:
A.
Marx and Laski
B.
Marx and Gandhi
C.
Rousseau and Gandhi
D.
Gandhi and Hegel.
Ans. B
72. Which of the following statement is incorrect:
A.
Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of founding fathers
B.
Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and aspirations of the people
C.
Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the
Constitution
D.
Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is no more than an
introduction to the Constitution.
Ans. D
73. The word ‘socialist secular’ and ‘unity and integrity of the
Nation’ were made to our Constitution by:
A.
42nd Amendment of the Constitution
B.
44th Amendment of the Constitution
C.
46th Amendment of the Constitution
D.
None of the above.
Ans. A
74. Which one of the following statements is correct:
A.
Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended
under Article 368
B.
Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be
amended
C.
Preamble is the part of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change
in the basic structure is made
D.
Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective resolution.
Ans. C
75. The Preamble of our Constitution is solemnly resolved to
secure to its people:
A.
Justice, social, economic and political; liberty of thought, expression,
belief, faith and worship and equality of status and opportunity
B.
Fundamental Rights and Duties
C.
Civil, Political and Economic fundamental rights
D.
Parliamentary form of Government.
Ans. A
76. The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is
made in the name of:
A.
People of India
B.
Constituent Assembly of free India
C.
Constitution of India
D.
Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Ans. A
77. The Preamble to our Constitution proclaims that ‘We, the
People of India have established:
A.
a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
B.
a Sovereign, Democratic Republic
C.
a Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Republic.
D.
a Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Sovereign, Republic.
Ans. A
78. Which one of the following statements is correct:
A.
the Preamble enumerates the purpose and objectives that the legislation
intended to achieve
B.
Preamble reflects the intention of the members of the Constituent Assembly
C.
the Preamble codifies the regular measures to the citizens
D.
envisages only liberty in all spheres.
Ans. A
79. The word ‘Socialist’ in Preamble, aims to:
A.
eliminate inequality in economic and political status
B.
eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs
C.
eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life
D.
eliminate class based society.
Ans. C
80. Which one of the following statements is correct:
A.
the Constitution gives more importance to the society as a whole
B.
the Constitution is individual centric or individual oriented
C.
the Constitution is social-economic pattern of the society but ignores the
individual
D.
the Constitution has not ignored individual but has endeavoured to harmonise
the individual interest with permanent interest of the community.
Ans. D
81. In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, it was
remarked that our ‘Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations’.
Who was the Judge:
A.
Mathew, J.
B.
Krishna Iyer, J.
C.
Subba Rao, J.
D.
H.R. Khanna, J.
Ans. C
82. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was:
A.
Jawaharlal Nehru
B.
Jai Prakash Narayan
C.
C. Rajgopalachari
D.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Ans. D
83. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution
was:
A.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B.
KM. Munshi
C.
Sir. A. Krishna Iyer
D.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Ans. A
84. ‘Fraternity’ means a
‘sense of common brotherhood to all Indians’ and is the principle which
gives unity and solidarity to social life’. It was said by:
A.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.
Jawaharlal Nehru
D.
C. Rajgopalachari.
Ans. B
85. The words ‘Social Justice’ in the Preamble of the
Constitution, aims the primary duty of the State:
A.
to make sure that justice was not based on caste, community, race or religion
B.
to work for creating a fruitful environment where a reasonable attitude towards
social relations strengthened
C.
both (a) & (b)
D.
none of the above.
Ans. C
86. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were inserted in the
Preamble by:
(a)
15th Amendment of the Constitution
(b)
39th Amendment of the Constitution
(c)
42nd Amendment of the Constitution
(d)
44th Amendment of the Constitution.
Ans. (c)
87. The Constitution of India (100th Amendment) Act, 2015 deals
with:
A.
Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh
B.
Right to fair compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation
and Resettlement
C.
Goods and Service Tax
D.
Reservation in promotion to SC/STs.
Ans. A
88. Though the major part of the Constitution of India came into
force on January 26, 1950, the provision relating to citizenship, elections,
provisional Parliament, and temporary and transitional provisions came into
force with immediate effect, from:
A.
15 August, 1949
B.
30 June, 1948
C.
26 November, 1949
D.
26 June, 1950.
Ans. C
89. ‘Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme importance and the
Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble
vision expressed in the Preamble.’ Justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in
the case of:
A.
In re: Beru Bari Union
B.
Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerela
C.
A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D.
In re: Kerala Education Bill.
Ans. B
90. In accordance with the text of the Constitution, a reasonable
restriction in the interest of ‘sovereignty and integrity’ of India can be
imposed on the right to:
A.
freedom of speech and expression
B. move freely throughout the
territory of India
C.
reside and settle in any part of territory of India
D.
carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Ans. A
91. Every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India
under any of the foregoing provisions of this Part shall, subject to the
provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament, continue to be such
citizen. ‘Continuance of the rights of Citizenship’ is the content of which of
the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 10
B. Article 11
C. Article 9
D. Article 9(2)
Ans. A
92. Part I of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the
following?
A. The Union and its territory
B. Union of States
C. Preamble
D. Amendments
Ans. A
93. Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the
following terms?
A. Citizenship
B. Union Government
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Fundamental Rights
Ans. D
94. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The fundamental rights cannot be taken away by any legislation.
II. Legislation can only impose reasonable restrictions on the
exercise of the right.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of above
Ans. C
95. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before
the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with
the provisions of this part, shall to the extent of such inconsistency, be
void. (Article 13(1) Indian Constitution)
II. The state shall not make any law which takes away or abridges
the rights conferred by this part and any law made in contravention of this
clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
A. I and II
B. both are incorrect
C. only I
D. only II
Ans. A
96. Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution says,
“Nothing in this Article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made
under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution”. Clause (4) has been inserted by
which of the following Amendment Acts?
A. 22nd Amendment Act
B. 21st Amendment Act
C. 24th Amendment Act
D. 23rd Amendment Act
Ans. C
97. Who, among the following, can challenge the constitutionality
of a law?
I. No one but whose rights is directly affected by a law can raise
the question of the constitutionality of the law.
II. A person who is not possessed of a fundamental right cannot
challenge the validity of a law on the ground that it is inconsistent with a fundamental
right.
III. A person who challenges the constitutionality of a statute
must show that he is sustaining some direct injury as the result of enforcement
of the statute.
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. B
98. Clause (4) of Article 13 the Indian Constitution which were
inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971,
states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed according to Article 368,
Indian Constitution is a law within the meaning of Article 13 and would,
accordingly be void if it contravenes a fundamental right. This amendment was
declared void in which of the following cases?
A. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
B. Edward Mills Co. ltd. v. State of Ajmer
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India
Ans. C
99. Which of the following equalities is/are included in the Right
to Equality?
A. Equality before Law
B. Equal Protection of Laws
C. Equal Pay for equal work
D. All of them
Ans. D
100. Which of the following is an essential part of rule of law
and independence of Judiciary?
A. Judicial Review
B. Impartial appointment of Judges
C. Impeachment
D. Original Jurisdiction
Ans. A
101. Where there is a conflict between law and equity, it is the
____ which has to prevail?
A. Law
B. Equity
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. A
102. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is
considered as the heart of the Constitution as it confers right to life as well
as right to choose?
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 15
Ans. B
103. Under right to equality, prohibition or discrimination on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is the basis of which
of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 14
B. Article 16
C. Article 15
D. Article 15(2)
Ans. C
104. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Discrimination on the ground of residence will be invalid under
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution where it is not founded on a reasonable
classification.
II. ‘Residence’ cannot be a ground for disqualifying a person for
appointment under a state, unless Parliament so prescribes under Article 16(3).
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. None of them
D. Both I and II
Ans. D
105. The Court can interfere if there is no principle according to
which the state has classified a community as ‘socially and educationally
backward’ or the principle adopted is arbitrary thus the court would strike
down as discriminatory:
I. A classification of all communities in a state other than
Brahmins as socially and educationally backward.
II. A classification by which communities having a higher
percentage of literacy are included as ‘backward’ while those having a lower
percentage are excluded.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. none of them
Ans. A
106. A Scheduled Caste is not a ‘caste’ within the meaning of that
word in Article. 15(1) and 16(2) of the Indian Constitution. It has a special
meaning, namely, a caste as notified by the________ under Article 366 (25) of
the Indian Constitution having regard to their abysmal backwardness.
A. Parliament
B. Governor
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Ans. C
107. A discrimination against a man or a woman, only on the ground
of__________ would be violative of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution.
A. Sex
B. Remuneration
C. Place of birth
D. Religion
Ans. A
108. In making reservations for the backward classes, the state
cannot ignore the _____ of the rest of the citizens.
A. Civil Rights
B. Political Rights
C. Economic Rights
D. Fundamental Rights
Ans. D
109. ‘Equality of opportunity in matter of public employment’ is
the basic content of which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution?
A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 15(2)
D. Article 16(4)
Ans. A
110. Clause (1) and (2) of Article 16 of the Indian Constitution
guarantees equality of opportunity to all citizens in the matter of appointment
to any office or of any other employment under the state. However, clauses
(3)-(5) lay down the following several exceptions to the rule of equality.
I. Though any citizen of India, irrespective of his residence, is
eligible for any office or employment under the Government of India [Clause
(2)] residence may be laid down as a condition for particular classes of employment
under a state or any local authority therein, by an Act of Parliament in the
behalf [Clause (3)].
II. The State (as defined in Article 12) may reserve any post or
appointment in favor of any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of
the State, are not adequately represented in the services under the state
[Clause (4)].
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A